Q&A #1: Question 2

My second question regarding this week's topic was to respond to Kant's notion that pleasure in the aesthetic is not grounded in nor produces desire. From our reading alone there are several sections in which Zangwill discusses that we seek agreement in our aesthetic judgments, we desire the agreement of other about our claims about beauty. In addition to desiring universal agreement about our claims of beauty, the desire to encounter the beautiful and the aesthetic seems to me to be a plausible theory. Given Kant's support of a priori faculties and abilities in the human mind, would it be untenable to say that people are drawn towards the aesthetic; that we have a natural inclination and desire to seek out the beautiful. While it would be difficult to explain what that inclination would look like, these were just some possible responses I mulled over when rereading the piece for a second time.